Ⅰ Introduction About The Collatz Conjecture
The Collatz Conjecture is a famous math conjecture, named after mathematician Lothar Collatz, who introduced the idea in 1937. It is also known as the 3x + 1 conjecture, the Ulam conjecture etc. Many mathematicians have tried to prove it true or false and have expanded it to more digits scale. But until today, it has not yet been proved.
The Collatz Conjecture concerns sequences of positive integers in which each term is obtained from the previous one as follows: if the previous integer is even, the next integer is the previous integer divided by 2, till to odd. If the previous integer is odd, the next term is the previous integer multiply 3 and plus 1. The conjecture is that these sequences always reach 1, no matter which positive integer is chosen to start the sequence.
Here is an example for a typical integer
x = 27, takes up to 111 steps, increasing or decreasing step by step, climbing as high as 9232 before descending to 1.
27, 82, 41, 124, 62, 31, 94, 47, 142, 71, 214, 107, 322, 161, 484, 242, 121, 364, 182, 91, 274, 137, 412, 206, 103, 310, 155, 466, 233, 700, 350, 175, 526, 263, 790, 395, 1186, 593, 1780, 890, 445, 1336, 668, 334, 167, 502, 251, 754, 377, 1132, 566, 283, 850, 425, 1276, 638, 319, 958, 479, 1438, 719, 2158, 1079, 3238, 1619, 4858, 2429, 7288, 3644, 1822, 911, 2734, 1367, 4102, 2051, 6154, 3077, 9232, 4616, 2308, 1154, 577, 1732, 866, 433, 1300, 650, 325, 976, 488, 244, 122, 61, 184, 92, 46, 23, 70, 35, 106, 53, 160, 80, 40, 20, 10, 5, 16, 8, 4, 2, 1.
If the conjecture is false, there should exists some starting number which gives rise to a sequence that does not contain 1. Such a sequence would either enter a repeating cycle that excludes 1, or increase without bound. No such sequence has been found by human and computer after verified a lot of numbers can reach to 1. It is very difficult to prove these two cases exist or not.
This paper will try to prove the conjecture true from a special view. Because any even can become odd through
operation, this paper will research only odd characters in the conjecture sequence. The equivalence conjecture become: with random starting odd x, do
operation repeatedly, it always converges to 1. The above sequence can be written as following, in which numbers on arrows are k in
in each step:
Ⅱ Build Equation For The Conjecture
If odd x do n times
calculation build odd y, we can get:
In which p1…pn is k in operation in each step.
For example:
,
, then
Suppose odd x can converge to 1 through
calculation, then y=1, get:
Formula (1)
We know
, and can do any times this kind of operation. That is to say, 1 do random n steps
operation can converge to 1, have:
Below we use this model to prove and search for solution of Formula (1) for any odd x converging to 1.
Ⅲ Solution For Any Odd Converging To 1 Equation
First with odd x do reform:
, am…a0=0, 1 or 2. Then:
If am>1 or am=1 but
, make
or :
Build identical equation:
Formula (2)
If x can converge to 1, Formula (1) and Formula (2) should be equivalence. Below we try to reform Formula (2) to form of Formula (1), if successful, it proves that equation for Formula (1) has solution.
First let:
, because x is odd, this is odd minus even, tn should be odd.
Because the max value of x-3m is , min value is , then tn has a range:
from to .
Change tn to binary form and let:
, this is just with 3n part multiply (2+1) become 3n-1 part, and plus corresponding part in Formula (2), minus corresponding part in Formula (1). From now on, tn-1 become even. Continue:
, and let 2p1 equal to the max value of even part(or the lowest bit of odd part).
Watch Formula (1) and Formula (2), in general, if do not consider 2p1+… part (because we consider 2p1+… as max value of even part of ti-2) in Formula (1), corresponding parts in Formula (2) are bigger than corresponding part in Formula (1). Hence after a few times of , value of ti-2 is mainly determined by corresponding part in Formula (2). And, after , odd part should add 1 or 2 bits, if add 1 bit, should operate in MSB bit; if add 2 bits, should operate in MSB-1 bit. Both cases odd part add 2 bits after operation, if MSB bit of ti-2 is 2k, k should be odd.
Continue:
, let 2p1+p2 equal to the max value of even part. Because LSB bit sequence number of odd part of ti increases continuously, this can be finished easily.
Watch ti(i<n and decreases step by step), during iteration, the count of succession 1 in the highest part should be unchanged or increased. Why? This is because of characters of odd multiply 3 and operation. If ti-1 is with binary form 10…, obviously, count of succession 1 in highest part of ti-2 is unchanged or increased. If ti-1 is with form 111…, after do , should become 101…, do ,become 111…, count of succession 1 in highest part is also unchanged or increased. Other cases can be proved easily. Some cases can increase, for example, if ti-1 is with form 110110…, ti-2 becomes 1110…
Do this iteration continuously, count of succession 1 in the highest part of odd part of ti is unchanged or increased, LSB bit sequence number is also increased. Hence, finally, ti can become form of 11…, just form (k+j=odd). Stop here, do not do again, odd x already converge to 1. Do operation, it should operate in MSB+1 bit, because MSB bit sequence number of is forever equal to MSB+1 bit sequence number of the previous item. Hence minus result can be equal to , thus prove the Collatz Conjecture and get solution of Formula (1).
Below give a specific example, x=7.
We know, with 7 do
, have:
Let p
1=1, and delete item 2:
Let p
1+p
2=2, and delete item 2
2:
Let p
1+p
2+p
3=4, and delete item 2
4:
Let p
1+p
2+p
3+p
4=7, and delete item 2
7:
Now become 111…, the highest bit is 2
13, iteration finished, steps n=5. And
This way, we get a solution for Formula (1), in which the value of n and pi is exactly same with the result got from calculating directly.
Ⅳ Convergence Regularity Of Collatz Conjecture
If we calculate directly with odd through operation, the odd sequence built (called Sequence (1)) has no obvious convergence regularity, elements in the sequence vary sometimes big, sometimes small. But if we do operation as introduced in above section, convergence regularity of the odd sequence built (called Sequence (2)) is more obvious.
First, if add two corresponding elements in each step in these two odd sequences, should be exactly 2k(k is different with different elements). Such as
… in above example.
In general, first element in Sequence (2) is:
and first element in Sequence (1) is x:
, then
, is just the same form with Formula (2), and 2m should be the MSB+1 bit sequence number of x or a(along with the increasement of a in Sequence (2), 2m should be the MSB+1 bit sequence number of a, because each corresponding part in Formula (2) is bigger than which in Formula (1)).
Below prove next elements also satisfy above regularity.
Suppose a in Sequence (2) and x in in Sequence (1) satisfy above regularity, and:
This states that the lowest bit of odd part of (3x+1) and (3a+2m+1-1) is equal, and add these two odd parts should be 2i(i<k).
Above regularity states that the original odd sequence has no obvious regularity is because it is only the partial part, not the whole part.
Second, research into odd multiplying 3, any odd can be written in binary form 1…1, both the highest and lowest bit is 1, after
, although total bit number increases, first substep is to shift bit 1 to the middle of the result, second substep may make carry to higher bit due to 1+1 in the middle of the result(1-bits in the middle of odd also satisfy this regularity). Both substeps are beneficial to our final goal, because we need many 1 bits in final result.
operation ensure succession 1 bits in the highest part, -1 operation reduce count of isolated 1 bits in the lowest part. Hence 0-bits in the odd part in t
i should shift right or bit-count reduce in each step, and its weight in total t
i should reduce step by step till to 0, when the odd part converges to 1...1. Build a simple weight model:
Definition (1)
Where 2
2k is the corresponding adding part in t
i in that step. Because obviously
in each step, simply we can use w
i represent the weight of value of all 0 bits in odd part in t
i. We can also think
as the sum of t
i and its corresponding part in original sequence, the conclusion we final got is same. Specially, with any odd a, which highest bit is 2
m, define w
i for this odd:
Definition (2)
Although the denominator may be bigger than which in Definition (1), the regularity is same.
Note: if odd is with form 1...1, without 0 bits, try to find its corresponding original odd strictly using method introduced above, if not found, abandon it, if found, ignore some previous steps till wi or w[a] is not equal to 0. Only weight function value of 11 is always equal to 0 till to convergence, it is not worth worrying about. These cases do not influence our research.
Observe wi, it should reduce step by step, and model value can and must converge to 0, because there is no possibility to exist a convergence value, which its corresponding odd part in ti is not 1...1, and its model value can remain unchanged in next steps through multiplying 3 operation and other two operations. Thus odd part must converge to 1...1, could not diverge or converge to other odds.
ti sequence in above example is: 9,42,188,816,3456,14336
odd part sequence is: 9,21,47,51,27,7
wi sequence is(according to Definition (1)):
(2+4)/4=1.5,(4+16)/16=1.25,64/64=1,(64+128)/256=0.75,512/1024=0.5,0/4096=0
Through above introduction we know, with odd we do operation in the Collatz Conjecture, on the contrast, with odd we do in above iteration method. We can easily prove that odd 1…10a(a is in binary base) is equivalent to odd 10a in second method, count of succession 1 bits in the head part only represent the iteration steps roughly.
In fact, only one case 0 bits in ti do not shift right or bit-count reduce when ti has not converged. This is:
101->1011.
This case wi do not change, both are 1/4, according to Definition (2). But next step 1011->11 , ti converges, hence this case is not worth worrying about.
Below we prove it strictly.
Suppose with odd a do
operation, and use x represent iteration steps. We can reform w
i as following(according to Definition (1)), the numerator part is exactly equal to 0 bits in t
i:
Obviously w(x) is continuous derivable when a in odd domain definition and x in positive integer domain definition, and is bounded(>=0).
Now we try to take the derivative of w(x).
Here the derivation definition of the numerator and denominator is: (y(x+1)-y(x))/(x+1-x).
Then the derivation of the numerator is:
The derivation of the denominator is:
Then
Where b is the odd after odd a doing x steps
operation. that is:
Observe w'(x), we know when b>3, w'(x)<0, w(x) monotonically decreases. Only when b=1(this case should equal to 4), or when b=3, , w'(x)=0. Second case of b=3 is the except case introduced above, the corresponding odd part of ti is with form '101', is not worth worrying about. First case is convergence case.
Totally, this kind of iteration calculation has these
cases after doing as following:
Case 1. odd tail part decreases one bit, head part does not increase one bit, this case tail part should insert one bit of 1 and with zero or more 0 changing to 1, totally 1 bits weight should increase in tail part.
Case 2. odd tail part decreases one bit, head part
increases one bit, if corresponding odd in sequence change
bigger, is just because tail part carry one bit of 1 to head part; if corresponding
odd change smaller, is just we need.
Case 3. odd tail part decreases two bits, head part does not increase one bit, tail part 0 bits should shift right.
Case 4. odd tail part decreases two bits, head part increases one bit.
Case 5. odd tail part decreases three or more bits, head part increases zero or one bit.
All these cases, w(x) function are decreased step by step except some cases introduced above.
Does it exist some odds which its wi tends to 0 but not equal to 0 forever? In fact, it exists some odds which 0-bits distribution are similar and wi decreases if they exist in same sequence. Such as, 10001 and 110001(+25) or 11000011(*4-1), 10001 and 1100001(insert 0). Because the operation limits the varying of the highest part of odd, these odds could not be possible to appear in the same sequence, also could not repeatedly appear.
For example:
10001->101001->1011101->11001011->11011->111, could not produce similar 0-bits distribution.
Below prove it from another view.
Suppose odd a is in operation sequence, its corresponding odd in operation sequence is b, which highest bit is 2m, then according to Definition (2), .
Next Step, b become odd c, then
, where 2
p is the lowest bit of odd part.
When a is big enough, for example a>=210+1, .
This means when odd in operation sequence is big enough, next step, wi is smaller than which multiply 0.751 in current step.
In above example, for first odd, , for other odds, , , , wi for all other odds is equal to or bigger than wi *0.5 for first odd.
Any odds have this same regularity. Because when the tail part of the odds remain unchanged or insert 0(any tail position), the numerator part is same or bigger than 2 times of original, and the denominator become same or 2 times of original, when the head part(successive 1 part) of the odds add one 1, the denominator become 2 times again, then the final value should be bigger than 0.5 times than original.
In above example, obviously, first odd could not become other odds in within 3 steps(case of huge odds is same). But 0.751*0.751*0.751=0.423564751<0.5, it is contradictious.
If steps increase, it is also not possible to become other odds, because if steps increase, count of 1 in head part should also increase, this consumes many steps, there are no enough steps left to finish the need deformation.
We know, normally if only think about varying of head part, it needs 2 or 3 steps periodly to finish adding one 1 to head part, if tail part carry one bit of 1 to head part , it minus 1 step. And tail part is not possible to carry 1 bit two times to head part when head part add two 1 successively, because each time head part add one 1 or tail part carry 1 bit to head part, highest part of tail part produces two more 0 bits, it could not produce carrying bit successively. This is to say, normally in long odd sequence, each time head part add one 1, it at least need about 2 more steps(we ignore odds needing only 1 step to add one 1 to head part in first step here, and we also ignore odds with form 10111(many many 1)..., because although this kind of odds need 2 steps to finish adding one 1 to head part successively during some steps, it decreases count of successive 1 in tail part after each step, this is not good for changing to similar 0-bits distribution).
We know loop odd sequence and divergence odd sequence both are long sequence which has much more than 4 elements(3 steps). Suppose any huge start odd a(its corresponding odd in
sequence is bigger than 2
10+1), a add x bits of 1 in head part and become huge odd b with similar 0-bits distribution of a, it at least need y steps to finish. Then w
[b] should be bigger than 0.5
x times of W
[a] from calculation directly, and should be smaller than 0.751
y times of W
[a] through iteration calculation character introduced in above. This is:
But, no matter whether the deformation is finished or not, only to finish adding enough bits of 1 to head part, it need at least more than 2x steps(about 2.5x steps), there is no enough steps to do tail deformation. So far, the needing steps from these two angles may be contradictious.
Hence it could not be possible to exist a sequence which exists a loop or wi tends to 0 but not equal to 0 forever when all odds in the sequence are big enough. Once one corresponding odd in sequence become smaller than 210+1, it become case of small odd, and all small odds can be proved to converge easily manually.
Ⅴ The Complement Weight Function Of W[a]
To avoid proving weight function W[a] converging to 0(it is not easily to prove strictly the numerator part equal to 0 finally), we build its complement weight function. Build:
, the highest bit of a is 2m.
Through the proof and introduction above, we know Wc[a] monotonically increases except when corresponding odd bi in sequence of ai is 1 or 3, and these except cases are not worth worrying about. And we also know the convergence state of Wc[a] is .
How much does W
c[a] increase in each step? Suppose odd a
0,a
1,a
2 are three elements in order in
sequence, a
0 is equal to a, then
where 2
p is 2
k in first step
operation.
Observe this formula, when 2
p is equal to 2 or 4,
is
, suppose this ratio is
, then
When n->∞, , this is a convergence state, and we know, in actual case, it needs a limit number n steps to reach to(or bigger than) , because the ratio is .
when 2p is bigger than 4, is , but still , Wc[a] also increases, this time, there is not any other limit, it can increase till to its convergence state. And more importantly, when 2p is bigger than 4, converging speed become more faster, because corresponding odd in sequence become smaller.
Of course, Wc[a] can converge in (k is any positive integer), not only . This increases the convergence chance of Wc[a].
Is it possible that Wc[a] increases continuously but never equal to ? For example, 87/128, 177/256, 357/512, 717/1024…(here does not consider ratio temporarily).
It is not possible. Observe the varying of fraction in lowest terms of Wc[a], the denominator part is equal, smaller, or 2 times of previous(because the numerator part at least can be divided by 2 in each step) in each step, when is equal, the numerator part should increase, it is possible to converge, when is 2 times of previous, the total value also increase, when is smaller, the total value should not only bigger than the value of front Wc[a] with same denominator part(if exist), but also bigger than all Wc[a] follow it. And in long sequence, usually appear the smaller case, it has many chances to appear , especially when the front element is already close to its convergence state. For example, suppose 177/256 is in sequence, if some following element with same denominator part 256 appear after many steps, its value should be bigger than all the elements between 177/256 and itself, it is much possible to equal to 255/256.
Continuously observe W
c[a], even in the 2 times case, elements are closer to convergence state by themselves. Suppose the denominator part of fraction in lowest terms of
is 2
m+2,
We know 2m<a<2m+1-1, if a is not equal to 11…101, which is very close to its convergence state 11…1, the above formula is <0. Thus proved the above conclusion.
Below give an example of start number 27 in odd sequence to verify, some decimals are written in the form which is easily to be judged equal to, bigger or smaller than 0.75.
Odds in sequence are:
37,87,97,209,441,917,1887,1927,1957,3959,3993,8037,16151,16209,32505,65141,130479,130627,65369,130821,261767,261861,523863,523969,1048097,2096433,4193225,8386989,16774787,8387697,16775849,33552381,67105787,16776639,16776783,16776891,4194243,2097129,4194269,8388555,1048571,262143
Wc[a] sequence:
37/64,87/128,97/128,209/256,441/512,917/1024,1887/2048,1927/2048,1957/2048,3959/4096,3993/4096,8037/8192,16151/16384,16209/16384,32505/32768,65141/65536,130479/(65536*2),130627/(65536*2),65369/65536,130821/(65536*2),261767/(65536*4),261861/(65536*4),523863/(65536*8),523969/(65536*8),1048097/(65536*16),2096433/(65536*32),4193225/(65536*64),8386989/(65536*128),16774787/(65536*256),8387697/(65536*128),16775849/(65536*256),33552381/(65536*512),67105787/(65536*1024),16776639/(65536*256),16776783/(65536*256),16776891/(65536*256),4194243/(65536*64),2097129/(65536*32),4194269/(65536*64),8388555/(65536*128),1048571/(65536*16),262143/262144
sequence:
13/128,10/128,15/256,23/512,35/1024,53/2048,40/2048,30/2048,45/4096,34/4096,51/8192,77/16384,58/16384,87/32768,131/65536,197/(65536*2),148/(65536*2),111/(65536*2),83/(65536*2),125/(65536*4),94/(65536*4),141/(65536*8),106/(65536*8),159/(65536*16),239/(65536*32),359/(65536*64),539/(65536*128),809/(65536*256),607/(65536*256),455/(65536*256),683/(65536*512),1025/(65536*1024),769/(65536*1024),144/(65536*256),108/(65536*256),81/(65536*256),15/(65536*64),11/(65536*64),17/(65536*128),13/(65536*128),1/(65536*16)
sequence:
10/13≈0.77,0.75,0.77,0.76,0.76,0.755,0.75,0.75,0.76,0.75,0.755,0.753,0.75,0.753,0.752,0.751,0.75,0.748,0.753,0.752,0.75,0.752,0.75,0.752,0.751,0.751,0.750,0.750,0.749,0.751,0.750,0.750,0.749,0.75,0.75,0.741,0.73,0.77,0.76,0.62
Through above we know
, it can be written in following forms:
, b-1<>0 mod 4, or
, b-1≡0 mod 4, in which b is the corresponding odd of a in sequence, b-1 reflects the 0-bits in the tail part of a.
Then Collatz Conjecture can be described as: With any odd a in range of 2k to 2k+1-1, set its initial goal set is 2j+1-1(j<=k), its tail part is b, do operation: try to do (b-1) divided by 4, if can not, shift left one bit of a, plus the result of shifting right one bit of b(the 0-bits in the tail part of a), and add 2k+2-1 to goals set of a, this operation makes the 0-bits in the tail part of a shift right or count reduce; if can, a plus the result of (b-1) divided by 4, this operation not only makes the 0-bits in the tail part of a shift right or count reduce, but also reduces the odds count about 1/4 to its goal 2k+1-1, furthermore, if the last result is even, it can reduce a fraction of using 2k+1 as denominator, this makes it can reach its previous goal 2j+1-1(j<=k) possibly. Do these operations repeatedly, it have unlimited chances to reach one of its goal set.
Through above we know, if sequence have only /2 and(or) /4 cases, the sequence can never converge, /2 case makes goal of a in sequence larger, /4 case needs ∞ steps. But it is not possible in long sequence, this is determined by the regularity of tail binary bits of odd doing operation. Odds of form with *10…01(many 0), both its initial value and result can do (-1)/4, Odds of form with *11…11(many 1), both its initial value and result can do (-1)/2, these two cases can become other forms after several steps, and once become other forms, it needs many steps to become back to many 1 or 0 forms(if become back to form with similar distribution, 0 or 1 count should reduce). Odds with other forms, themselves and their following steps can appear alternately /2, /4, /2k cases.
Ⅵ (*3+2m-1)/2^k Odd Tree And Its Regularity
Characters of 2
k are very regular, if we set odds of
between 4
p+4
p-1+…+1 and 4
p+1+4
p+…+1 as one layer, call 2
k are the properties of these odds after doing
operation, we can find each layer count of 2
2p+1, 2
2p,…2
2, 2 are 1, 1 2 4, 1 2 4 8 16…, their positions have equal interval space, 2
2p+1 is in the middle between 4
p and 4
p+1, 2
2p is in the middle of left part…, first position and step length of odds of different 2
k property are different afer doing
operation in different layers. In brief, characters of 2
k are very regular, we do not introduce in detail. Here we still put focus on
odds. See following tree:
In above tree, a.b in () means result is a*2
b after front odd doing
operation. M_th layer has 2
m elements, the last element is the convergence state. Characters of 2
k are also very regular, for example, upward from a specific layer, positions of 2 are 1+2i(i>=0), upward from another specific layer, positions of 2
2 are 4+4i, positions of 2
3 are 2+8i, positions of 2
4 are 14+16i…, this can be easily proved strictly. For example, odds of position 2+8i in m layer are 2
m+1-1+(2+8i)*2, (0=<i<=[(2
m-1-1)/4]).
Can be divided by 23, result is odd if m+1>3. And because the highest bit of the result odd is 2m, it must be in m-1 layer, downward one layer from m layer.
Through above, we can easily prove that if the property of an odd is 21, it moves upward one layer(and also moves forward some location), if the property of an odd is 22, it moves forward in the same layer, if the property of an odd is 2k(k>2), it moves downward k-2 layers(and also moves forward some location).
In this tree, because element count of each layer is 2 times of which of the downward layer, we can transform all positions to one specific layer. M-1 layer transform to m layer do *2, m+1 layer transform to m layer do /2, etc. Then all transformed positions can not exceed 2m!
Below we try to prove odds in any layer can converge. Normally, we suppose the research sequence is long huge(odds in sequence are huge) sequence.
Suppose a is an odd in m-1 layer, its highest bit is 2m.
Pos of a in m-1 layer is: ,
, b is in layer m-p1+1
Pos of b in m-p1+1 layer is: ,
Pos of b in m-1 layer is: , is in layer m+3-p1-p2
Pos of c in m+3-p1-p2 layer is: Pos of c in m-1 layer is: , ratio p is:
Next try to prove the average value of position increment ratio p is >=3/4 in long valid sequence(or rebuilt sequence).
Only these cases ratio p<3/4: p
2=1, p
1>=2; p
2=2, p
1>=3. When 2
m+1-a>>
(corresponding odd in
sequence is very big),
can be ignored,
. Then:
Below list some special cases.
If pk appear 2,1,2,1,2,1,2,1..., p(2,1)+ p(1,2)≈3/2, average p≈3/4.
If pk appear 2,1,1,2,1,1,2..., p(2,1)+ p(1,1) + p(1,2)>9/4, average p>3/4.
If pk appear 3,1,3,1,3,1,3,1..., p(3,1)+ p(1,3)<3/2, average p<3/4(still >1/2). but this sequence means: first downward one layer, then upward one layer, then downward one layer…, all movements are in the two layers, it must overstep the boundary of the tree(sequence is invalid) or converge.
If pk appear 2,1,3,1,2,1,3,1…, p(2,1)+p(1,3)+p(3,1)+p(1,2)<12/4, average p<3/4, this serial number could not be possible to appear frequently, because the property of the front and back number of 2 are same, and 3 also. In most instances, front and back property are different. Front and back property are same for two numbers frequently are less cases.
If pk appear 2,1,3,2,1,3,2…, average p<3/4, but this sequence means: first forward in one layer, upward one layer, and downward one layer, and forward in that layer…, all movements are in the two layers, it must overstep the boundary of the tree or converge.
If pk appear 2,1,3,1,3,2,1,3,1,3,2..., average p<3/4, but all movements are in the two layers, it must overstep the boundary of the tree or converge.
If pk appear 2,1,3,1,3,2,2,1,3,1,3,2..., average p<3/4, but all movements are in the two layers, it must overstep the boundary of the tree or converge.
Summary, all <3/4 cases in above are invalid or can converge possibly. And we know, Normally (3,1), (4,1), (5,1)…, (3,2), (4,2), (5,2)…appear less times in long sequence, because they are beneficial to convergence. The ratio of them is <3/4 is usually just because the ratio is >3/4 in front of them. In fact, (1,1), (1,2), (2,1), (2,2) appear frequently in long sequence. This case, average ratio p>=3/4.
Although above calculation is roughly(mainly because a in above formula changes each time), we can use them to estimate.
We can also prove it from another view. From ratio formula we know, cases of (forward, upward), (downward, upward), (downward, forward) ratio <3/4; cases of (upward, upward), (downward, downward), (upward, downward), (upward, forward) ratio >3/4; case of (forward, forward) ratio =3/4. cases of >3/4 is more than cases of <3/4. And most importantly, in long huge sequence, the general trend of the sequence is upward in the tree(general forward and downward trend increase the convergence speed), cases of (upward, upward), (upward, forward), (forward, forward) should appear frequently, (upward, upward) should appear most times. Because one step can only upward one layer, and one step can downward one more layers, we can consider some successive upward steps as one step to achieve reciprocity operation, then the accumulation ratio is big, this guarantee the average ratio is >=3/4.
For example, if appear (4,1) or (4,2), normally it should upward 2 or more layers before(or after) to guarantee general upward trend. If front sequence is (1,1,4), then ratio sequence is about:
If consider front upward steps as one step, then ratio is about:
ratio sequence of (4,1) is about:
If 2m+1-a is very big(huge sequence), >>, p(1,1,4)-(3/4)>>|p(4,1)-(3/4)|, the average ratio is >3/4.
If back sequence is (1,1,1), then ratio sequence is about:
If consider two upward steps as one step, then ratio is about:
If 2m+1-a is very big(huge sequence), >>, p(1,1,1)-(3/4)>>|p(4,1)-(3/4)|, the average ratio is >3/4.
We can verify it using actual value:
Suppose after (1,1,4,1) operation get odd e, then
Position of e in m-1 layer is:
If use proportional sequence of ratio 3/4, consider two steps of (1,1) as one step, still use a and b-a as start position and start position increment to estimate, position is:
pos1>pos2 because 2m+1>a, it is thus clear that the average ratio is >3/4.
if the sequence is (4,1,1,1), position of e in m-1 layer is:
If use proportional sequence of ratio 3/4, consider two steps of (1,1) after (4) as one step, position is:
pos1>pos2 if 2m+1-a is very big, then the average ratio is >3/4.
If needed, we can also merge successive (2,2) to one step, this further guarantees the average ratio of long huge sequence is >3/4. In fact, we can merge any successive steps to one step if needed, because we have already transformed odd position to absolute position of same layer, nothing to do with layer sequence number again.
Below we rebuild a new sequence from odd sequence which the average position increment ratio of transform position sequence is bigger than 3/4 using above method.
From above we know the transform position increment from odd a to b is:
Only when a=3(or 1…11 in binary form), p1=2 or a=5(or 1…101 in binary form), p1=1, the position increment is equal to 0, these two cases are convergence state or quasi convergence state. Other cases position increment is bigger than 0. The bigger p1 is, the bigger position increment will get. Since a is random, we can get result: To any specific odd, upward step has the smallest transform position increment. Of course, to any specific a, p1 is actually fixed, here suppose it can vary for purposes of comparison.
From above we know the position increment of two successive upward steps is
the position increment of downward 2 layers in one step is
When in long huge sequence.
This means the position increment of merging (1,1) to one step in long huge sequence is about equivalent to one downward step. Merging (1,2), (1,2+), (2,2), (2,2+), (2,1), (2+,1), (2+,2) is similar because upward step has the smallest transform position increment.
Hence, if appear position increment ratio<3/4 cases in long huge sequence, we can merge two or more behind successive steps to one step, finally get a new sequence which its average position increment ratio of transform position sequence is bigger than 3/4. If merge all behind steps the ratio is still <3/4, it reinforces convergence of the sequence(convergence sequence could appear this case), because the current transform position is not far away 2m-1.
Note, during the merging procedure, make sure the ratio is a little bigger than 3/4, not very big, especially not bigger than 1. If the previous ratio is much bigger than 3/4, we can split some transform position value to next step, not influencing the final position value. Never suppose the transform position limit of long huge sequence is 2m-1, because position increment is forever >0 before convergence.
So we can use proportional sequence of ratio 3/4 to estimate the rebuilt sequence.
After a do n times operation, pos in m-1 layer is:
When n->∞(although we merge some successive steps to one step, non convergence sequence still has ∞ steps),
When first number property >4(this is very easy to achieve in original long sequence), and when n->∞, the final transform position is >2m-1, is contradictory. This means, the sequence should become small sequence(once one element become a small odd in our range, the sequence becomes), or converge before a limit steps, or overstep the boundary of the tree(it is not possible in real world).
We can also rebuild sequence using other method. Look below. The common transform position formula is:
which bi is the corresponding odd in sequence.
Suppose one long huge sequence has n upward steps, k forward steps, l downward steps, finally upward h layers, then , which q1…ql is k of 2k in downward steps., n>h(normally n>>h in long huge sequence) and n>l. The final transform position is:
Now rebuild, do not change first step, we move number property 2k of all the downward steps next to the first step(suppose we can move in order to compare), then forward steps and upward steps. From common transform position formula we know, the new sequence has slower convergence speed because more previous the position of 2k is, more great influence it produce, bigger the value of minus part is. And at least previous downward steps have ratio >3/4. Merge all upward steps to one step(If needed, we can even merge all upward steps and forward steps to one step). Use new sequence to estimate transformation position. Below prove the estimation position is smaller than the original.
Use proportional sequence of ratio 3/4 and new step count to estimate, then
is >>
, is about
times,
is the tail part, its absolute value is <<
, can be ignored in long huge sequence.
Because the sequence is long huge sequence, we can select a >= . Let , then Hence is about , its times is when n(or n+k)>>h in long huge sequence and p1 is not very big(for example =3), hence, . If the long huge sequence is non-convergence, the count of the previous downward steps(ratio>3/4) of new sequence can be infinite. This means we can use proportional sequence of ratio 3/4 to estimate the convergence of original sequence, and its transformation position must >2m-1 after infinite steps..
Still has one puzzle, the transformed positions of equivalence elements(add binary 1s in head) of elements in left half part in m-1 layer are all in right half part in m-1 layer, it is as if exist many loops. It is of course not correct, this is because, although they are equivalence, their functions are different. Other odds can change to them, and they can also converge. Through proof in previous section, odd a can not make a loop in long huge sequence because adding x bits of binary 1 in head, needs about 2.5x steps, and W[a] transformation needs less than 2.4207x steps. And, if some long sequence exist loops, the transformation position(to m-1 layer) can never reach to or bigger than 2m-1, it is also contradictory.
Maybe it is possible to use proportional sequence of ratio 3/4 to estimate the convergence steps for some long huge sequence(guarantee the average ratio is >3/4). For some odds in m-1 layer, if start odd can reach to or bigger than 2m-1 in limit steps n using ratio 3/4, indicates that the convergence step count should be smaller than n multiply a number(because we merge some successive steps to one step to estimate, the suitable value of the number is difficult to get, but should not be very large); if can not reach to forever, indicates should use average ratio >3/4, but we don't know suitable value of the ratio, we can do operation several steps until found a suitable odd(normally the number property of the odd is bigger than 4) as start odd and do estimation again.
Ⅶ Conclusion
This way, we have proved that the Collatz Conjecture is true.
References
- Jeffrey, C. Lagarias. The 3x + 1 Problem and Its Generalizations. American Mathematical Monthly; Vol. 92, No. 1, pp 3-23.(1985).
- Jeffrey C. Lagarias. The 3x+1 Problem: An Overview, arXiv:2111.02635. arXiv:2111.02635.
- Jishe Feng. Solve the 3x+1 problem by the multiplication and division of binary numbers. [CrossRef]
- Baoyuan Duan. A proof for 3x+1 guess. vixra:2110.0116V5.
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